“None Were” vs. “None Was”
Rule: With words that indicate portions—some, all, none, percent, fraction, part, majority, remainder, and so forth —look at the noun in your of phrase (object of the preposition) to determine whether to use a singular or plural verb. If the object of the preposition is singular, use a singular verb. If the object of the preposition is plural, use a plural verb.
Examples:
None of the pie was eaten.
None of the children were hungry.
In a sentence like “None were missing,” there is an implicit noun that answers the question, “None of what?” That noun is what determines whether none takes a plural or singular verb.
Examples:
None were missing. (None of the cookies were missing.)
None was missing. (None of the pie was missing.)
Note: Apparently, the SAT testing service considers none as a singular word only. However, according to Merriam
Webster’s Dictionary of English Usage, “Clearly none has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. The notion that it is singular only is a myth of unknown origin that appears to have arisen in the 19th century. If in context it seems like a singular to
you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb. Both are acceptable beyond serious criticism” (p. 664)
Pop Quiz
- None of the garbage was/were picked up.
- None of the chairs was/were comfortable.
- She inspected all of the plates and none was/were chipped.
Answers
- None of the garbage was picked up.
- None of the chairs were comfortable.
- She inspected all of the plates and none were chipped.
June 16, 2009 at 2:01 pm
Thanks for the refresher course on “none is/none are.”
I think one reason some people insist that “none” is always singular is the notion that it implies the idea of “not one.”
I’m sorry to hear that the SAT testing service considers “none” to be only a singular word. More dumbing of the language.
July 5, 2009 at 8:08 pm
Hello, I lean toward the side of thinking of none as a singular and see “none was” as a simple matter of subject-verb agreement. Thinking of none as singular, I say that the prepositional phrase coming after none should have no more of an effect on the conjugation of the verb than a prepositional phrase that follows “one” or “neither.” We can agree that “neither” takes a singular in all cases, can’t we?
I see so many youth and adults who cannot identify the subjects of their own utterances. I find that the train derails from that point.
July 6, 2009 at 2:53 pm
The folks who make SAT tests lean the same way as you do. I think of “none” like other “portion” subjects such as “majority,” “remainder,” and “fraction.” These nouns can be either singular or plural, depending on the implied or stated object of the preposition.
Examples: A fraction of the costs were recovered. A fraction of the cost was recovered. The remainder of the pie was eaten. The remainder of the pies were eaten.
July 8, 2009 at 3:55 pm
Thank you, I wish my English course text had been this easy to understand.
July 8, 2009 at 6:24 pm
I wish so for your sake, too. However, I’m glad this works for you!
July 14, 2009 at 10:20 am
Which is correct:
“$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period are (or is) attributable to lobbying-related income.”
July 14, 2009 at 10:43 am
The subject of “$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period is/are attributable to lobbying-related income” is $50,400. Sums of money are usually thought of as singular so the verb would be “is.”
August 20, 2009 at 7:30 am
NONE was derived from NOT ONE which makes it absolutely singular.
It is incorrect to say, “One of us were there.” It would be, “One of us was there.”
Logic dictates that the same rules apply when using NONE.
“None (not one) of us was there.’”
Think it through and it becomes quite clear.
Usage may tell you that “None of us were there.’ SOUNDS right, but that it because you are listening to the wrong people. English has ways of compounding incorrect usage when all we HEAR is incorrect usage, even among journalists and others who should know better. Let’s hear it for learning the correct way and using it regardless of what the unlearned say.
August 20, 2009 at 9:34 am
This is what Dictionary.com has to say about none:
Usage note: Since none has the meanings “not one” and “not any,” some insist that it always be treated as a singular and be followed by a singular verb: The rescue party searched for survivors, but none was found. However, none has been used with both singular and plural verbs since the 9th century. When the sense is “not any persons or things” (as in the example above), the plural is more common: … none were found. Only when none is clearly intended to mean “not one” or “not any” is it followed by a singular verb: Of all my articles, none has received more acclaim than my latest one.
July 8, 2010 at 1:12 pm
I learned none means “not one” or “nor any”.
Any is (can be?) plural.
None of us are going to the dance.
July 8, 2010 at 9:37 pm
You’re correct that “none” means “not one” or “not any.” When the meaning is “not any,” use a plural verb. Your example: None of us are going to the dance. We mean, “Not any of us are going to the dance.” Thanks for writing.