“None Were” vs. “None Was”
Rule: With words that indicate portions—some, all, none, percent, fraction, part, majority, remainder, and so forth —look at the noun in your of phrase (object of the preposition) to determine whether to use a singular or plural verb. If the object of the preposition is singular, use a singular verb. If the object of the preposition is plural, use a plural verb.
Examples:
None of the pie was eaten.
None of the children were hungry.
In a sentence like “None were missing,” there is an implicit noun that answers the question, “None of what?” That noun is what determines whether none takes a plural or singular verb.
Examples:
None were missing. (None of the cookies were missing.)
None was missing. (None of the pie was missing.)
Note: Apparently, the SAT testing service considers none as a singular word only. However, according to Merriam
Webster’s Dictionary of English Usage, “Clearly none has been both singular and plural since Old English and still is. The notion that it is singular only is a myth of unknown origin that appears to have arisen in the 19th century. If in context it seems like a singular to you, use a singular verb; if it seems like a plural, use a plural verb. Both are acceptable beyond serious criticism” (p. 664)
Pop Quiz
- None of the garbage was/were picked up.
- None of the chairs was/were comfortable.
- She inspected all of the plates and none was/were chipped.
Answers
- None of the garbage was picked up.
- None of the chairs were comfortable.
- She inspected all of the plates and none were chipped.
Posted on Sunday, June 14th, 2009 at 2:15 pm
36 Responses to ““None Were” vs. “None Was””
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Thanks for the refresher course on “none is/none are.”
I think one reason some people insist that “none” is always singular is the notion that it implies the idea of “not one.”
I’m sorry to hear that the SAT testing service considers “none” to be only a singular word. More dumbing of the language.
Hello, I lean toward the side of thinking of none as a singular and see “none was” as a simple matter of subject-verb agreement. Thinking of none as singular, I say that the prepositional phrase coming after none should have no more of an effect on the conjugation of the verb than a prepositional phrase that follows “one” or “neither.” We can agree that “neither” takes a singular in all cases, can’t we?
I see so many youth and adults who cannot identify the subjects of their own utterances. I find that the train derails from that point.
The folks who make SAT tests lean the same way as you do. I think of “none” like other “portion” subjects such as “majority,” “remainder,” and “fraction.” These nouns can be either singular or plural, depending on the implied or stated object of the preposition.
Examples: A fraction of the costs were recovered. A fraction of the cost was recovered. The remainder of the pie was eaten. The remainder of the pies were eaten.
Thank you, I wish my English course text had been this easy to understand.
I wish so for your sake, too. However, I’m glad this works for you!
Which is correct:
“$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period are (or is) attributable to lobbying-related income.”
The subject of “$50,400 of the fees the Firm earned from you in that period is/are attributable to lobbying-related income” is $50,400. Sums of money are usually thought of as singular so the verb would be “is.”
NONE was derived from NOT ONE which makes it absolutely singular.
It is incorrect to say, “One of us were there.” It would be, “One of us was there.”
Logic dictates that the same rules apply when using NONE.
“None (not one) of us was there.’”
Think it through and it becomes quite clear.
Usage may tell you that “None of us were there.’ SOUNDS right, but that it because you are listening to the wrong people. English has ways of compounding incorrect usage when all we HEAR is incorrect usage, even among journalists and others who should know better. Let’s hear it for learning the correct way and using it regardless of what the unlearned say.
This is what Dictionary.com has to say about none:
Usage note: Since none has the meanings “not one” and “not any,” some insist that it always be treated as a singular and be followed by a singular verb: The rescue party searched for survivors, but none was found. However, none has been used with both singular and plural verbs since the 9th century. When the sense is “not any persons or things” (as in the example above), the plural is more common: … none were found. Only when none is clearly intended to mean “not one” or “not any” is it followed by a singular verb: Of all my articles, none has received more acclaim than my latest one.
I learned none means “not one” or “nor any”.
Any is (can be?) plural.
None of us are going to the dance.
You’re correct that “none” means “not one” or “not any.” When the meaning is “not any,” use a plural verb. Your example: None of us are going to the dance. We mean, “Not any of us are going to the dance.” Thanks for writing.
“A fraction of the costs were recovered.”
I think that “Fractions of the costs were recovered.” is a more coherent statement.
The words “A” and “fraction” both lean toward the singular “was”.
Knowing that it bothers me, our preacher says, every Sunday without fail, “There are a number of important announcements in the bulletin.”
I silently utter “There are numbers of important announcements in the bulletin.”, forgive him, though he is strikingly unrepentant, and move on.
Magnanimous of me, isn’t it?
Changing “fraction” to “fractions” is overkill. “A fraction of the costs were recovered” is already correct. See Rule 9.
I am adding a rule to address “a number” vs “the number.” This is what it will say:
The Number vs A Number
The expression the number is followed by a singular verb while the expression a number is followed by a plural verb.
Examples:
The number of people we need to hire is thirteen.
A number of people have written in about this subject.
Plus, the following questions will be part of the subscription quizzes:
1. The number of people lined up for tickets was/were four hundred.
2. A number of suggestions was/were made.
3. There is/are a number of important announcements in the bulletin.
4. Here is/are the number of milk shakes you requested.
Note that one of the quiz questions is from your email.
This discussion will not end as long as there are what are called “prescriptivists” and “descriptivists” in the world. One tells how it should be, and one tells how it is.
There are several areas of discussion at Wordwizards which are worth looks. One is here:
http://www.wordwizard.com/phpbb3/viewtopic.php?f=6&t=18332&p=44665
You’re right, I am a “descriptivist,” telling it the way I read about it from other experts rather than what I think a rule should state.
the confusion about the “fraction of costs” sentence stems from its ambiguity.
“a fraction of the costs WAS recovered” is correct when “the costs” is understood in the collective sense of “costs in aggregate.” it means that, e.g., the sum of the costs was $1000 but only $50 WAS recovered.
“a fraction of the costs WERE recovered” is correct when the costs are understood as a set of individual costs, rather than a lump sum. it means that, e.g., “costs a and b WERE recovered while costs c through z were not recovered.”
“a number of” is an idiom meaning “numerous.” that’s why it’s plural despite the singular “a.”
you shouldn’t be listening to preachers, jim, but in this case he’s right: “There are [numerous] important announcements in the bulletin.” “there are numbers” makes no sense because there is only one number, some particular quantity, of announcements.
Wow! I expected to spend two minutes finding out if I should write, “None of us were at church,” or “None of us was at church,” but instead, I’ve spent almost fifteen minutes reading and pondering your answer and the comments.
I’m glad I’ve found your web site.
Anita @ Beyond the Diapers and Spills
“None of us were at church” is correct. I am glad that you find the website helpful.
really helpful……………
gr8……..!!
I tend to agree with most of what Jane says. However, there is a problem with the ‘fraction’ example which probably stems from the fact that “a fraction of the costs” appears on the face of it to be grammatically incorrect. One would not refer to a fraction of a number of things (“a fraction of the costs” is like saying a fraction of the people, or a fraction of the motor vehicles.). One would use ‘fraction’ in relation to a singular entity. Therefore, it would be more correct to say “a fraction of the cost”. Once this grammatical inconsistency is cleared up you can apply the word ‘none’ in its singular sense: “a fraction of the cost was … etc.”.
Either wording “A fraction of the costs” or “A fraction of the cost” would be grammatically correct. One of the definitions of the word fraction is “portion.” One could certainly say “a portion of the costs,” especially in a case where one would be describing the various costs of a large project, such as a construction project, for example.
Get out your Grammar books folks – you’re on the wrong track. Look up “Colletivae Nouns”. “None” is a collective noun and is NOT short for “not one”. Collecrive nouns take plural verbs. The verb following a collective noun has nothing to do with what’s “assumed” rto be unspoken or unwritten in the sentence. It’s a simple grammar rule. “None are” is correct.
It appears as if both uses are acceptable. According to the AP Stylebook, “It usually means no single one. When used in this sense, it always takes singular verbs and pronouns: None of the seats was in its right place.
Use a plural verb only if the sense is no two or no amount: None of the consultants agree on the same approach. None of the taxes have been paid.
Merriam-Webster’s Dictionary recognizes none as “singular or plural in construction,” and lists one of the definitions as “not one.”
Language changes for various reasons and one is “if enough native speakers make the same mistake then it becomes a rule”. If that were not the case we would all be speaking in Beowolf’s English!
May I assume periods of time fall under the same category as sums of money, i.e. thought of as singular. For example “Thirty minutes was spent with the patient” vs “Thirty minutes were spent with the patient.”
Yes, time, distance, and money are sometimes thought of as a unit and take a singular verb. According to AP Stylebook, “Some words that are plural in form become collective nouns and take singular verbs when the group or quantity is regarded as a unit.”
Right: A thousand bushels is a good yield. (A unit.)
Right: A thousand bushels were created. (Individual items.)
Hello Jane,
I am from India and I am preparing for GRE Exam.I am a regular visitor of your website.Your post was very helpful to me.Questions involving the use of “none” with “is/are” are considered quite difficult to answer.You resolved all my queries.
Thank you.Keep up the good work !
You are welcome, Prateek! I am glad you find our website helpful. Good luck on your exam!
But what about the present tense? You can say “none was” and ” none were” but can you say “none is” as well as “none are”? I don’t think you can say “all is”… Would it be:
All of the group is participating?
or
All of the group are participating?
Yes, you can use the present tense “none is” and “none are.”
Examples:
None is gone. (None of the cake is gone.)
None are home. (None of the children are home.)
You would say, “All of the group is participating,” since group is a singular noun.
This is TOTALLY wrong!!!! Whether a verb is singular or plural is determined solely by the subject of that verb. Nothing in a prepositional phrase can affect that. In fact, that’s just about the first thing you learn about subject-verb agreement!
Portion words are tricky. They are not, in and of themselves, singular or plural and thus most persons have a hard time determining whether to use a singular or plural verb. Referencing the object of the preposition provides a helpful hint as to whether to use a singular or plural verb.
‘None of you are informed’ is as bad as
‘Me and her went to the movies’ or
‘This is between she and I’
‘None’ is singular and the verb should agree with it.
Words like none and some are indefinite pronouns. They are often singular but can also carry a plural sense. AP Stylebook explains, ” None usually means no single one. When used in this sense, it always takes singular verbs and pronouns: None of the seats was in its right place.Use a plural verb only if the sense is no two or no amount: None of the consultants agree on the same approach. None of the taxes have been paid.
OK thanks for the info and debate…Because of this, I just lost my bet….so I guess I am correct in saying, “None of the money I had before coming to this site is left!”
Yes, you are correct. Now that you’ve found the site, I hope you can make your money back on future bets!